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Author Topic: Proof the 16th Amendment was never properly ratified  (Read 12360 times)
MonkeyPuppet
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« Reply #40 on: August 22, 2012, 12:41:59 AM »


No it is not nonsense. I will clarify what I said by defining the term "law" as I use it. A law is a rule that is absolute and universally aplicable. There are no laws in the legal sense. I will name a few mythical laws that do not, in reality, exist: murder, kidnapping, terrorism. Our gov't murders, kidnaps (arrests), and commits acts of terrorism on a daily basis. The rule of law is a myth. There are only people with guns (and a multitude of other devices which kill and maim) coercing you to do things that you do not want to do. The "laws" are for you to follow not for them to follow.


In this we are in 100% agreement.  Mala en se crimes (as you stated: murder, kidnapping, as well as theft, etc... though "terrorism" is an odd-out, imo) are the only ones worthy of universal laws... but we know TPTB and their minions ignore them anyway.  All others are mala prohibita and the "laws" created to address them are principally used for revenue generation... victimless bullshit.

With that being the case, the Rule of Law is certainly a joke and has been replaced with defacto Martial Law (aka "no law at all", aka "whatever the hell we (those with the biggest guns) say is 'law' today").

However, as written, the Internal Revenue Code is 100% Constitutional.  The ignorance regarding its proper object, jurisdictional limitation and application are at issue.  Those arguing against it due merely to its existence or due to the contents (which they don't understand) are barking up the wrong tree.  When applied as written and within its jurisdictional context and limitation, few could argue that it is egregious... especially with regard to the average American, whom it does not even address in the slightest.

The income tax is an excise, limited to the subject matter and geographical limitations of Congress' taxing authority.  Basically, it is a foreign tax upon the privilege of using the federal government as a service for commercial purposes.  It is levied upon the gains enjoyed by foreign persons with domestic source income, their withholding agents (the last domestic entity with the money prior to it being handed off to the foreign recipient), and U.S. citizens residing abroad with foreign source income.
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JT Coyoté
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« Reply #41 on: August 23, 2012, 12:34:34 PM »

Yes and no, JT.

You are correct that for those not otherwise actually liable for FEDERAL income tax (the average American, living and working within the states), a separate agreement must be made, but it is not with the IRS.  The agreement is merely with the payer... the IRS will never see a form W-4 or W-9 (which prompt the payer to submit W2's and 1099's, respectively).  I know you know this, but I'm clarifying for others.

As for the BIR/IRS thing... it wasn't until 1953 that the BIR got its name change.  This coincided with the revised Internal Revenue Code of 1954.  This revision removed what they refer to as "redundant language".  However, the original 1939 codification of federal tax statutes was much more clear as to its proper object.  The 1954 version and subsequent 1986 version are much less clear.  Remember, the code is not "the law", but rather a codification of statutes, summarized and categorized for easy reference.

Is the IRS the interest-guarantee collection arm of the Federal Reserve?  You bet!  However, that has no bearing upon the issue at hand (though quite important and interesting).

What is more important to remember is that if a law, by jurisdiction, does not even apply to you, the wording of the statute or the obfuscation provided through its codification are irrelevant to the truth.

What most avoid, even after having it repeated over and over again for them to simply read, is the basic fact that the vast majority of Americans are not liable beyond the voluntary withholding agreements they are erroneously required to fill out with prospective payers.  These agreements are non-binding and can be rescinded at any time.  The only problem is... payers erroneously believe they must file the subsequent information returns because they too are ignorant of the law.  Unfortunately, the truth is no match for their fear (based on ignorance) of the IRS.  Unless they are willing to actually learn the truth, they would probably rather terminate a "problem" worker than bother themselves with useful information.

With only one worker every now and again bringing the issue to light, and with only 1 in 100 companies, practically no one has ever had to deal with someone who has learned the truth (and refuses to participate).  This lack of exposure makes it look as if those workers are fringe nutjobs, making it very easy for payers to ignore them (or not hire them, or fire them).  However if 100's, 1000's, or even 100's of 1000's of workers started demanding that payers actually follow the law, they could no longer ignore us or punish us (for their ignorance and cowardice!).

The whole idea here is to explain the federal reserve fraud in such a way that it is easily understood by most folks. The power to tax is the power to assume ownership by "legal" usurpation and ultimately destroy. This is not openly stated but must be understood and is easily gleaned by anyone through contemplation of the subject of taxation, by logical deduction.

The 16th Amendment was and continues to be improperly ratified since in some states, Oklahoma being one, the Amendment was altered, it was amended on the floor of the state legislature before it was ratified... this cannot be done to a Constitutional Amendment... all of the states must ratify the same Amendment the same wordage as presented, or reject it. Such changes were made in 5 or 6 states if my memory serves... this is a no-no.

Added to this are the facts surrounding the fraudulent passage of the federal reserve act with it's turning over of the major power of the federal government to a private corporate consortium hell bent on destroying our Constitution, and our individual liberties it protects.

The bottom line is you can argue the minutia of false fiat legalese, the myriad of ever morphing tax codes and regulations until you are blue in the face... the fact is that their basis is founded in multiple fraud and therefore are all unlawful on their face from their inception. This monumental fraud can and will be overturned only when the majority of average folks are made aware of it and stand together against it.

JTCoyoté

"I believe that banking institutions are more dangerous
to our liberties than standing armies. If the American
people ever allow private banks to control the issue
of their currency, first by inflation then by deflation,
the banks and the corporations that will grow up
around them [the banks] will deprive the people of
all property until their children wake up homeless on
the continent their fathers conquered. The issuing
power should be taken from the banks and restored
to the people, to whom it properly belongs."

~Thomas Jefferson, in an 1802 letter to
Secretary of the Treasury Albert Gallatin
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MonkeyPuppet
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« Reply #42 on: August 23, 2012, 04:43:52 PM »


The whole idea here is to explain the federal reserve fraud in such a way that it is easily understood by most folks. The power to tax is the power to assume ownership by "legal" usurpation and ultimately destroy. This is not openly stated but must be understood and is easily gleaned by anyone through contemplation of the subject of taxation, by logical deduction.

The 16th Amendment was and continues to be improperly ratified since in some states, Oklahoma being one, the Amendment was altered, it was amended on the floor of the state legislature before it was ratified... this cannot be done to a Constitutional Amendment... all of the states must ratify the same Amendment the same wordage as presented, or reject it. Such changes were made in 5 or 6 states if my memory serves... this is a no-no.

Added to this are the facts surrounding the fraudulent passage of the federal reserve act with it's turning over of the major power of the federal government to a private corporate consortium hell bent on destroying our Constitution, and our individual liberties it protects.

The bottom line is you can argue the minutia of false fiat legalese, the myriad of ever morphing tax codes and regulations until you are blue in the face... the fact is that their basis is founded in multiple fraud and therefore are all unlawful on their face from their inception. This monumental fraud can and will be overturned only when the majority of average folks are made aware of it and stand together against it.


JTCoyoté


This is precisely why I belabor these points so much, JT.  What many in the Tax Honesty movement, and the onlookers, do is try desperately to help others see the "blatantly obvious connection" between the 16th Amendment and the income tax (as we know it) based upon the "extremely obvious time-frames" involved in the supposed ratification of the 16th and some tax Acts passed by Congress that same year.

My point is not to say I don't wish for Congress to follow the rules with regard to ratification of Amendments.  I'm simply pointing out that the correlation between the 16th and the income tax (as we know it) is nonsense due to the scope, purpose, intent and legal effect of the 16th Amendment... it has nothing to do with the average American living and working within the states of the union.

This point is foundational and far from minutia.  The correlation is bogus from every angle and exemplified in Brushaber... why no one is bothering to read it is beyond me.

As for the "myriad of ever morphing tax codes and regulations", they are irrelevant, and I haven't used the content of the code as evidence of that for quite some time... we all grow in our knowledge and ability to share it.  I don't care about what the federal Internal Revenue Code and its parallel regulations say any more than the next average joe-blow.  It is only when someone asks a specific question (such as the authority for IRS forms and such) that I'll bother to share the information.

My primary point, despite my verbose writing style, is that it is the FEDERAL income tax and the federal INTERNAL revenue code.  I don't capitalize these words for nothing.  One must first come to realize that the federal government, according to the Constitution and the writings of the Founders, is principally the foreign agent for the states with regard to international matters.  This makes its geographic and subject matter jurisdiction limited to federal lands, federal possessions and protectorates, military bases and magazines, land specifically ceded to it by the states, as well as activities and privileges made possible by its very existence... such as foreign trade, visas, immigration, war, etc.

These are all of a federal nature.  Only after realizing this fundamental reality can one actually read tax law (if they so choose) in context.  Without such context, one's ignorance and conjecture would provide the very mechanism for tax tyranny that we live under today... big surprise!

The 16th did not grant Congress and the federal government any new power of taxation, nor did it extend its taxing power to new or excepted subjects.  It merely clarified one tiny aspect of the imposition of federal taxation that was allowing certain privileged persons/entities to avoid a lawfully imposed tax by a technicality... one that the 16th remedied.  It has NOTHING to do with the income of the average American worker.

If it wasn't properly ratified, it needs to be repealed and put back on the table with possibly some better language and put forth to the states through the proper process.  Knowing what its actual purpose is, I have no problem with it.  Those enjoying a FEDERAL privilege should pay for that privilege... don't ya think?  After all, that is the only funding mechanism Congress uses, as direct apportioned taxes upon the states would be grossly unpopular (which is why they've never done it!).  The average American enjoys ZERO privilege in their daily toils and activities... this makes them and their income, by law, among those excepted subjects.  We are NOT federal citizens unless we are outside the country, enjoying the protections of the federal government while visiting other countries.  When we are in our home states, we are not federal citizens... this is a major distinction and no longer taught in schools.
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JT Coyoté
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« Reply #43 on: August 24, 2012, 02:14:20 PM »

ARTICLE I, SECTION 9, CLAUSE 4, of the CONSTITUTION: As fully Ratified in conjunction with 10 Articles of Amendment, The Bill of Rights, on December 15, 1791.

"No Capitation, or other direct, Tax shall be laid,
unless in Proportion to the Census or enumeration
herein before directed to be taken
."


Note: Article I, section 9, clause 4 of the Constitution was "modified" considerably by amendment 16.

AMENDMENT XVI (16) Passed by Congress July 2, 1909. Ratified by the required number of states February 3, 1913.

"The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes
on incomes, from whatever source derived, without
apportionment among the several States, and without
regard to any census or enumeration
."


No new power to tax was given by the 16th amendment since the power to tax was pre existing within the congressional sphere from the ratification of the Constitution. What the 16th amendment did however, was extend the old power to tax by modifying a constitutional restriction on apportionment of the tax, (Brushaber v. Union Pacific Railroad, 240 U.S. 1 (1916) not withstanding).

The 16th amendment opened the door in the decade or so after the Spanish American War, provocateured to move America as the tool to extend the reach and scope of the British corporate banking empire, helped codify a point of entry for the private banking agency under the fraudulently enacted federal reserve act, giving total power to the "bank" with only ceremonial and limited congressional oversight. This served to begin the slow yet methodical design of creeping treason... a shadow government with power of the unlimited purse backed by the sweat, blood, and money of the American People, for generations until we are used up.

Read, The New Economic Disorder by economist and former Tennessee Congressman, Larry Bates...

JTCoyoté

"If there be one principle more deeply
rooted than any other in the mind of
every American, it is, that we should
have nothing to do with conquest...
There is...an artificial aristocracy founded
on wealth and birth, without either
virtue or talents... The artificial aristocracy
is a mischievous ingredient in government,
and provisions should be made to prevent
its ascendancy."
~Thomas Jefferson
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MonkeyPuppet
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« Reply #44 on: August 24, 2012, 04:43:24 PM »

The "extension" noted in Brushaber is a clarification of the consideration of form rather than substance.  You can read a book or article about the case, or you can read the case yourself... the latter provides much more clarity and far less bullshit.

The barons of industry were claiming that since their incomes were derived from property (rents, sales and use of public lands and those in the federal zone), that the taxes imposed upon that income was unconstitutional.  Whether you agree that such incomes should or should not be taxed, Congress sought to remedy that loophole with the 16th Amendment.  The purpose was to clarify, within the existing power and limitation of that power, what could be embraced by the taxing authority granted to Congress in the Constitution.

from Brushaber...

"... the whole purpose of the Amendment was to relieve all income taxes when imposed from apportionment from a consideration of the source whence the income was derived."

and further...

"... the Amendment demonstrates that no such purpose was intended [to destroy the classifications of taxes], and on the contrary shows that it was drawn with the object of maintaining the limitations of the Constitution and harmonizing their operation."

Arguments claiming the 16th provides the federal Congress the ability to tax the labor or income of the average American living and working within the states, which is the contention of this thread and of most people who have not even studied the subject (or wish to deceive others), are completely baseless.  One must discard substantive fact to one degree or another to reach this conclusion, but in the context of the Constitution, federal jurisdiction, the 16th Amendment, and the construction of federal tax laws at present, there is NOTHING that supports these arguments.

Now, was the 16th properly ratified, the opening of this can of worms of a thread?  I don't know, but if it was, it needs to be remedied properly, but NOT because people think it will relieve them of a federal tax... the VAST majority of Americans are NOT liable now anyway and never were and never will be.

Those dabbling in the Tax Honesty movement by clinging to absurd theories need to further their understanding to a degree that allows them to see past this kind of nonsense.  Many believe that repealing the 16th will somehow remove the federal Congress' ability to tax their income.  First, it wouldn't, because that wasn't even the intent of the Amendment.  Second, they're failing to understand what it is that is making them liable now (hint: their own ignorance and that of others equally ignorant of the law!).
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« Reply #45 on: August 25, 2012, 10:24:47 AM »

Truth is that governments throughout history by the mere fact they possess the greater means of force have and will continue to impose their will upon their respective populations.
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« Reply #46 on: August 25, 2012, 11:23:51 AM »


Truth is that governments throughout history by the mere fact they possess the greater means of force have and will continue to impose their will upon their respective populations.


Their will is enabled by the ignorance of the People.
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« Reply #47 on: August 25, 2012, 11:49:23 AM »

Their will is enabled by the ignorance of the People.

Yes and their willingness to trade comfort for true freedom.
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« Reply #48 on: August 25, 2012, 09:03:18 PM »

And then there is this...

The 16th was broad in it's constitutional modification. it was not explicit in who it wished to target in it's opening up and altering the Article 1, section 9, clause 4, taxing clause, while blending interpretive aspects into the meaning of the Article 1, section 8, Excise and Impost clause.

The changes made have over time been used to hoodwink the people, in light of the 14th amendment "corporate citizenship" designation, to unknowingly accept this fraud.

...Give this a read.

Quote
WHERE DOES INCOME COME FROM ?

 

            In addressing the issue of precisely what the 16th Amendment authorized, and what the federal “income tax “ legislation, that was enacted and tested and upheld by the Court in 1916,  actually taxed, the Court states in Bowers v. Kerbaugh-Empire Co., 271 U.S. 170 (1926), on page 174:

 

“The Sixteenth Amendment declares that Congress shall have power to levy and collect taxes on income, 'from  whatever source derived' without apportionment among the several states, and without regard to any census or enumeration. It was not the purpose or effect of that amendment to bring any new subject within the taxing power. Congress already had power to tax all incomes. But taxes on incomes from some sources had been held to be 'direct taxes' within the meaning of the constitutional requirement as to apportionment. Art. 1, 2, cl. 3, 9, cl. 4; Pollock v. Farmers' Loan & Trust Co., 158 U.S. 601 , 15 S. Ct. 912. The Amendment relieved from that requirement and obliterated the distinction in that respect between taxes on income that are direct taxes and those that are not, and so put on the same basis all incomes 'from whatever source derived.' Brushaber v. Union Pac. R. R., 240 U.S. 1, 17 , 36 S. Ct. 236, 241 (60 L. Ed. 493, L. R. A. 1917D, 414, Ann. Cas. 1917B, 713). 'Income' has been taken to mean the same thing as used in the Corporation Excise Tax Act of 1909 (36 Stat. 112), in the Sixteenth Amendment, and in the various revenue acts subsequently passed. Southern Pacific Co. v. Lowe, 247 U.S. 330, 335 , 38 S. Ct. 540; Merchants' L. & T. Co. v. Smietanka, 255 U.S. 509, 219 , 41 S. Ct. 386, 15 A. L. R. 1305. After full consideration, this court declared that income may be defined as gain derived from capital, from labor, or from both combined, including profit gained through sale or conversion of capital. Stratton's Independence v. Howbert, 231 U.S. 399, 415 , 34 S. Ct. 136; Doyle v. Mitchell Brothers Co., 247 U.S. 179, 185 , 38 S. Ct. 467; Eisner v. Macomber, 252 U.S. 189, 207 , 40 S. Ct. 189, 9 A. L. R. 1570. And that definition has been adhered to and applied repeatedly. See, e. g., Merchants' L. & T. Co. v. Smietanka, supra, 518 (41 S. Ct. 386); Goodrich v. Edwards, 255 U.S. 527, 535 , 41 S. Ct. 390; United States v. Phellis, 257 U.S. 156, 169 , 42 S. Ct. 63; Miles v. Safe Deposit Co., 259 U.S. 247, 252 , 253 S., 42 S. Ct. 483; United States v. Supplee-Biddle Co., 265 U.S. 189, 194 , 44 S. Ct. 546; Irwin v. Gavit, 268 U.S. 161, 167, 45 S. Ct. 475; Edwards v. Cuba Railroad, 268 U.S. 628, 633 , 45 S. Ct. 614. In determining what constitutes income substance rather than form is to be given controlling weight. Eisner v. Macomber, supra, 206 (40 S. Ct. 189).

 

            The statement that “Congress already had power to tax all incomes” would seem to be contradicted by the fact that the Supreme Court declared a personal federal income tax on the income of individuals to be unconstitutional in 1895, as is noted by the court, in the Pollock v. Farmer’s Loan & Trust Co. 157 U.S. 429 (1895).  So, why did the court declare this?

            The key to understanding the court’s statement, of course, is provided in the next sentence of the decision, where it is clearly stated that: “ ‘Income’ has been taken to mean the same thing as used in the Corporation Excise Tax Act of 1909,”.

            So let’s examine the Corporate Tax Act of 1909 (36 Stat. 11, 112).  It states:

“That every corporation, joint stock company or association, organized for profit and having a capital stock represented by shares ... now or hereafter organized under the laws of the United State or of any State ... shall be subject to pay annually a special excise tax with respect to carrying on or doing business by such corporation ... equivalent to one per centum on the entire net income over and above five thousand dollars received by it from all sources during such year....”

            The Corporate Tax Act of 1909 (36 Stat. 11, 112) imposed an indirect excise tax on corporations, imposed on the privilege of doing business in corporate form, and to be measured by the amount of corporate income (gains and profits) earned in the taxable period (year) by the corporation.  Black's Law Dictionary defines an excise as:

 
Excise taxes are taxes "laid upon the manufacture, sale or consumption of commodities within the country, upon licenses to pursue certain occupations, and upon corporate privileges." Flint v. Stone Tracy Co., 220 U.S. 107, 31 S.Ct. 342, 349 (1911); or a tax on privileges, syn. "privilege tax".                     (emphasis added)
 

            The Supreme Court case specifically referenced by Black's, has provided a clear and definite scope of the excise taxing authority.   In Flint v. Stone Tracy Co., 220 U.S. 107 (1911)[1], the Supreme Court held that:

 
"Duties and imposts are terms commonly applied to levies made by governments on the importation or exportation of commodities. Excises are "taxes laid upon the manufacture, sale or consumption of commodities within the country, upon licenses to pursue certain occupations, and upon corporate privileges ... the requirement to pay such taxes involves the exercise of the privilege and if business is not done in the manner described no tax is payable...it is the privilege which is the subject of the tax and not the mere buying, selling or handling of goods. [/i]" Cooley, Const. Lim., 7th ed., 680." Flint, supra, at 151 (emphasis added)

            The Corporate Tax Act of 1909 provided that the excise tax laid on the corporate business, was to be measured by the corporate income.  The 1909 act defined the corporate tax as an excise tax and therefore it is an "indirect" tax under Article I, Section 8, Clause 1, granting Congress the power to “…lay and collect taxes, duties, imposts and excises,…”.  Indirect taxes such as an excise are not subject to the rule of apportionment that direct taxes are subject to.

            However, no citizen is subject to any excise tax on their private activity that is measured by income, because citizens, under the Flint v. Stone Tracy Co decision are not subject to any excise tax unless they hold some license, or engage in the manufacture, consumption or sale of commodities, or operate as a corporation rather than as an individual.

            As the court noted in U.S. v. Ballard 535 F.2d 400 at page 404, the word "income" is not actually defined in the Internal Revenue Code.  However, the Supreme Court has consistently defined it in a number of cases.  In Stratton's Independence v. Howbert, 231 U.S. 399 (1913), the court wrote:

"As has been repeatedly remarked, the corporation tax act of 1909 was not intended to be and is not, in any proper sense, an income tax law. This court has decided in the Pollock Case that the income tax of 1894 amounted in effect to a direct tax upon property, and was invalid because not apportioned according to population, as prescribed by the Constitution. The act of 1909 avoided this difficulty by imposing not an income tax, but an excise tax upon the conduct of business in a corporate capacity, measuring, however, the amount of tax by the income of the corporation, . . ."

            The Supreme Court identifies that the constitutional justification for the corporate "income tax", is as an indirect excise tax "imposed with respect to the doing of business in corporate form", just as it has been defined under Flint two years earlier.

“Evidently Congress adopted the income as the measure of the tax to be imposed with respect to the doing of business in corporate form because it desired that the excise should be imposed, approximately at least, with regard to the amount of benefit presumably derived by such corporations from the current operations of the government. In Flint v. Stone Tracy Co. 220 U.S. 107, 165 , 55 S. L. ed. 107, 419, 31 Sup. Ct. Rep. 342, Ann. Cas. 1912 B. 1312, it was held that Congress, in exercising the right to tax a legitimate subject of taxation as a franchise  or privilege, was not debarred by the Constitution from measuring the taxation by the total income, although derived in part from property which, considered by itself, was not taxable. It was reasonable that Congress should fix upon gross income, without distinction as to source, as a convenient and sufficiently accurate index of the importance of the business transacted.” Stratton's Independence, Ltd. V. Howbert, 231 U.S. 399, at 416 – 417 (1913)

            The above case applied to a corporation and its corporate income, so if you are not a  corporation, then the Corporation Excise tax on income does not apply to you. The important thing here is the clarification that the income tax is upheld as a constitutional indirect excise tax, imposed upon the doing of business in corporate form.  It is not upheld as a direct tax on all earnings, or even on all income of the citizens.    

            And he Supreme Court tells us again in Eisner vs. Macomber, 252 U.S. 189 (1920), on page 205, that:

“The Sixteenth Amendment must be construed in connection with the taxing clauses of the original Constitution and the effect attributed to them before the amendment was adopted. In Pollock v. Farmers' Loan & Trust Co., 158 U.S. 601 , 15 Sup. Ct. 912, under the Act of August 27, 1894 (28 Stat. 509, 553, c. 349, 27), it was held that taxes upon rents and profits of real estate and upon returns from investments of personal property were in effect direct taxes upon the property from which such income arose, imposed by reason of ownership; and that Congress could not impose such taxes without apportioning them among the states according to population, as required by article 1, 2, cl. 3, and section 9, cl. 4, of the original Constitution.

Afterwards, and evidently in recognition of the limitation upon the taxing power of Congress thus determined, the Sixteenth Amendment was adopted, in words lucidly expressing the object to be accomplished:

'The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several states, and without regard to any census or enumeration.'

As repeatedly held, this did not extend the taxing power to new subjects, but merely removed the necessity which otherwise might exist for an apportionment among the states of taxes laid on income. Brushaber v. Union Pacific R. R. Co., 240 U.S. 1 , 17-19, 36 Sup. Ct. 236, Ann. Cas. 1917B, 713, L. R. A. 1917D, 414; Stanton v. Baltic Mining Co., 240 U.S. 103 , 112 et seq., 36 Sup. Ct. 278; Peck & Co. v. Lowe, 247 U.S. 165, 172 , 173 S., 38 Sup. Ct. 432.

After examining dictionaries in common use (Bouv. L. D.; Standard Dict.; Webster's Internat. Dict.; Century Dict.), we find little to add to the succinct definition adopted in two cases arising under the Corporation Tax Act of 1909 (Stratton's Independence v. Howbert, 231 U.S. 399, 415 , 34 S. Sup. Ct. 136, 140 [58 L. Ed. 285]; Doyle v. Mitchell Bros. Co., 247 U.S. 179, 185 , 38 S. Sup. Ct. 467, 469 [62 L. Ed. 1054]), 'Income may be defined as the gain derived from capital, from labor, or from both combined,' provided it be understood to include profit gained through a sale or conversion of capital assets, to which it was applied in the Doyle Case, 247 U.S. 183, 185 , 38 S. Sup. Ct. 467, 469 (62 L. Ed. 1054).

 Brief as it is, it indicates the characteristic and distinguishing attribute of income essential for a correct solution of the present controversy. The government, although basing its argument upon the definition as quoted, placed chief emphasis upon the word 'gain,' which was extended to include a variety of meanings; while the significance of the next three words was either overlooked or misconceived. 'Derived-from-capital'; 'the gain-derived-from-capital,' etc.  Here we have the essential matter: not a gain accruing to capital; not a growth or increment of value in the investment; but a gain, a profit, something of exchangeable value, proceeding from the property, severed from the capital, however invested or employed, and coming in, being 'derived'-that is, received or drawn by the recipient (the taxpayer) for his separate use, benefit and disposal- that is income derived from property.  Nothing else answers the description.” Eisner vs. Macomber, 252 U.S. 189, 205 -206  (1920).

But these decisions all are addressing the income of a corporation, which, under Flint v Stone Tracy Co., supra, is indirectly taxable to the government through the imposition of an excise tax.   But citizens are not subject to any excise, and cannot be legitimately brought under the purview of any excise under the pretense of having allegedly earned “income”.  As we will see, IT IS ONLY THE INCOME OF THE CORPORATIONS THAT IS SUBJECT TO THE EXCISE, and only other INDIRECTLY TAXABLE earnings under Article I, Section 8, Clause 1 that are subject to the federal personal income tax !    

            Clearly, while the definition of income may mean a “gain derived from capital, from labor, or from both combined, provided it be understood to include profit gained through a sale or conversion of capital assets”, it also has inherent within it the understanding that the gain or profit has been created through and realized from a specific activity or subject made taxable to the federal government under Article 1, Section 8, Clause 1, of the Constitution, subject to imposts, duties or excises.  

            But how would this same definition of “income” be made applicable to the individual citizen who is not deriving earnings from any excise taxable activity that is made subject to any indirect tax, but is merely exercising his or her right to an occupation of common law right, without government license or incorporation being involved?

In Merchants' Loan & Trust Co. v. Smietanka, 255 U.S. 509 (1921)

"It is obvious that these decisions in principle rule the case at bar if the word "income" has the same meaning in the Income Tax Act of 1913 that it had in the Corporation Excise Tax Act of 1909, and that it has the same scope of meaning was in effect decided in Southern Pacific Co. v. Lowe 247 U.S. 330, 335, where it was assumed for the purposes of decision that there was no difference in its meaning as used in the act of 1909 and in the Income Tax Act of 1913. There can be no doubt that the word must be given the same meaning and content in the Income Tax Acts of 1916 and 1917 that it had in the act of 1913. When to this we add that in Eisner v. Macomber, supra, a case arising under the same Income Tax Act of 1916 which is here involved, the definition of "income" which was applied was adopted from Strattons' Independence v. Howbert, arising under the Corporation Excise Tax Act of 1909, with the addition that it should include "profit gained through sale or conversion of capital assets," there would seem to be no room to doubt that the word must be given the same meaning in all the Income Tax Acts of Congress that was given to it in the Corporation Excise Tax Act, and that what that meaning is has now become definitely settled by decisions of this Court."

In Southern Pac Co. V. Lowe , 247 U.S. 330 (1918), the court noted:

We must reject in this case, as we have rejected in cases arising under the Corporation Excise Tax Act of 1909 (Doyle, Collector, v. Mitchell Brothers Co., 247 U.S. 179 , 38 Sup. Ct. 467, 62 L. Ed. --, and Hays, Collector, v. Gauley Mountain Coal Co., 247 U.S. 189 , 38 Sup. Ct. 470, 62 L. Ed. --, decided May 20, 1918), the broad content submitted in behalf of the government that all receipts-everything that comes in-are income within the proper definition of the term 'gross income,' and that the entire proceeds of a conversion of capital assets, in whatever form and under whatever circumstances accomplished, should be treated as gross income. Certainly the term 'income' has no broader meaning in the 1913 act than in that of 1909 (see Stratton's Independence v. Howbert, 231 U.S. 399, 416 , 417 S., 34 Sup. Ct. 136), and for the present purpose we assume there is no difference in its meaning as used in the two acts.

            The word "income" has the same meaning in ALL the income tax acts of Congress. That meaning being a realized gain or profit (on or from capital, labor or assets) EARNED BY A TAXABLE SUBJECT of the federal government.  Corporations, trusts and foreign “persons” (both non-resident alien individuals and foreign corporations), are all legitimate taxable subjects of the federal government.

            American Citizens are not the taxable subjects of the federal government as it is well known that the power to tax is the power to destroy, and under a dejure application of all of the provisions of the United States Constitution, the federal government does not legitimately possess a lawful power to destroy the Sovereign American People, whom it is tasked with the duty of representing, and over whom it is never given the power to destroy, as it would be obviously ridiculous for the representative to be empowered to destroy those whom it represents.

 The Supreme Court has also ruled  in Eisner vs. Macomber, 252 U.S. 189 pg 205 (1920):

" The Sixteenth Amendment must be construed in connection with the taxing clauses of the original Constitution and the effect attributed to them before the amendment was adopted. In Pollock v. Farmers' Loan & Trust Co., 158 U.S. 601 , 15 Sup. Ct. 912, under the Act of August 27, 1894 (28 Stat. 509, 553, c. 349, 27), it was held that taxes upon rents and profits of real estate and upon returns from investments of personal property were in effect direct taxes upon the property from which such income arose, imposed by reason of ownership; and that Congress could not impose such taxes without apportioning them among the states according to population, as required by article 1, 2, cl. 3, and section 9, cl. 4, of the original Constitution.

Afterwards, and evidently in recognition of the limitation upon the taxing power of Congress thus determined, the Sixteenth Amendment was adopted, in words lucidly expressing the object to be accomplished:

'The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among  the several states, and without regard to any census or enumeration.'

As repeatedly held, this did not extend the taxing power to new subjects, but merely removed the necessity which otherwise might exist for an apportionment among the states of taxes laid on income. Brushaber v. Union Pacific R. R. Co., 240 U.S. 1 , 17-19, 36 Sup. Ct. 236, Ann. Cas. 1917B, 713, L. R. A. 1917D, 414; Stanton v. Baltic Mining Co., 240 U.S. 103 , 112 et seq., 36 Sup. Ct. 278; Peck & Co. v. Lowe, 247 U.S. 165, 172 , 173 S., 38 Sup. Ct. 432.

            The Supreme Court has plainly stated that an individual's earnings cannot be taxed directly: but an individual's income CAN be taxed if it was derived from an activity that is taxable to the federal government in an indirect manner through the enacted imposition of legislation imposing either a duty, an impost or an excise.

In Stratton's Independence v. Howbert, 231 U.S. 399 (1913), the court stated:

" As has been repeatedly remarked, the corporation tax act of 1909 was not intended to be and is not, in any proper sense, an income tax law. This court had decided in the Pollock Case that the income tax law of 1894 amounted in effect to a direct tax upon property, and was invalid because not apportioned according to populations, as prescribed by the Constitution. The act of 1909 avoided this difficulty by imposing not an income tax, but an excise tax upon the conduct of business in a corporate capacity, measuring, however, the amount of tax by the income of the corporation, with certain qualifications prescribed by the act itself. Flint v. Stone Tracy Co. 220 U.S. 107 , 55 L. ed. 389, 31 Sup. Ct. Rep. 342, Ann. Cas. 1912 B, 1312; McCoach v. Minehill & S. H. R. Co. 228 U.S. 295 , 57 L. ed. 842, 33 Sup. Ct. Rep. 419; United States v. Whitridge (decided at this term, 231 U.S. 144 , 58 L. ed. --, 34 Sup. Ct. Rep. 24.

            This meaning of income, as used in the 16th Amendment and in all of the taxing statutes in title 26, is confirmed by a number of Supreme Court decisions, which have never been reversed or repealed.  The 1921 Supreme Court decision of Merchant’s Loan & Trust Co v. Smietanka, 255 U.S. 509, could not have not said it more clearly when it held on pages 518-519:

 
“The word (income) must be given the same meaning in all of the Income Tax Acts of Congress that was given to it in the Corporation Excise Tax Act (of 1909) and that what that meaning is has now become definitely settled by decisions of this court.”
 

            Therefore the meaning of “income” in our revenue laws means a corporate profit as is clearly stated in the above decision and as confirmed in the following five other Supreme Court  decisions.

 
“Certainly the term “income” has no broader meaning in the 1913 Act than in that of 1909 (See Stratton’s Independence v. Howbert, 231 U.S. 399, 416, 417), and for the present purpose we assume there is no difference in its meaning as used in the two acts. Southern Pacific v. Lowe, 247 U.S. 330 (1918) (Emphasis added)
 

And before the 1921 Act this Court has indicated (see Eisner v. Macomber, 252 U.S. 189, 207), what it later held, that “income,” as used in the revenue acts taxing income, adopted since the Sixteenth Amendment, has the same meaning that it had in the Act of 1909. Merchant’s Loan &Y Trust Co. v. Smientanka, 255 U.S 509, 519; see Southern Pacific Co. v. Lowe, 247 U.S. 330, 335 Burnet v. Harmel, 287 U.S.103, (1932)

 
“Whatever difficulty there may be about a precise and scientific definition of 'income,' it imports, as used here, something entirely distinct from principal or capital either as a subject of taxation or as a measure of the tax; conveying rather the idea of gain or increase ARISING FROM CORPORATE ACTIVITIES. As was said in Stratton's Independence v. Howbert, 231 U.S. 399, 415 , 34 S. Sup. Ct. 136: 'Income may be defined as the gain derived from capital, from labor, or from both combined.'”  Doyle v. Mitchell Bros., 247 U.S. 179, (1918)            (Emphasis & capitalization added)
 

            Therefore, there can be no doubt that “income” within the meaning of these decisions means gain or profit “arising from corporate activities.”  Therefore, “corporate profit” and “income” in the “constitutional sense” both represent the same thing, and only mean income on earnings derived from the federal jurisdiction to tax indirectly, as authorized under Article I, Section 8, Clause 1.

            However, as explained in the Stratton’s decision, the 1909 tax on corporate income was imposed as an “excise” tax on the granted “privilege” of operating as a corporation.  The individual however, not enjoying any federal privilege (like incorporation) is not subject, or subjected to, any excise tax imposed on his earnings in a direct manner, or removed from federal subjectivity under Article I, Section 8, Clause 1.

"The individual may stand upon his constitutional rights as a citizen. He is entitled to carry on his private business in his own way. His power to contract is unlimited. He owes no duty to the state or to his neighbors to divulge his business, or to open his doors to an investigation, so far as it may tend to incriminate him. He owes no such duty to the state, since he receives nothing therefrom, beyond the protection of his life and property. His rights are such as existed by the law of the land long antecedent to the organization of the state, and can only be taken from him by due process of law, and in accordance with the Constitution. Among his rights are a refusal to incriminate himself, and the immunity of himself and his property from arrest or seizure except under a warrant of the law. He owes nothing to the public so long as he does not trespass upon their rights." Hale v. Henkel, 201 US 43.

            A person’s possessions obviously include the money and assets in his possession, as well as the fruits of one’s own labor.   The court has also ruled that a man’s labor is inviolable and is a guaranteed right.

 
"The common business and callings of life, the ordinary trades and pursuits, which are innocuous in themselves, and have been followed in all communities from time immemorial, must therefore be free in this country to all alike upon the same conditions. The right to pursue them, without let or hindrance, except that which is applied to all persons of the same age, sex, and condition, is a distinguishing privilege of Citizens of the United States, and an essential element of that freedom which they claim as their birthright. It has been well said that ‘the property which every man has in his own labor, as it is the original foundation of all other property, so it is the most sacred and inviolable. The patrimony of the poor man lies in the strength and dexterity of his own hands, and to hinder his employing this strength and dexterity in what manner he thinks proper, without injury to his neighbor, is a plain violation of this most sacred property. It is a manifest encroachment upon the just liberty both of the workman and of those who might be disposed to employ him." Butcher’s Union Co. v. Crescent City Co., 111 US 746.

 

"That the right to conduct a lawful business, and thereby acquire pecuniary profits, is property, is indisputable." Truax v. Corrigan, 257 US 312, 348.

"A state may not impose a charge for the enjoyment of a right granted by the Federal Constitution." Murdock V. Commonwealth of Pennsylvania, 319 US 105, 113.

"A "privilege" is whatever business, pursuit, occupation, or vocation effecting the public, the legislature chooses to declare and tax as such." Corn v. Fort, 95 S.W. 2d, 620.

"…but legislature cannot name something to be a taxable privilege unless it is first a privilege." "Right to receive income or earnings is right belonging to every person, and realization and receipt of income is therefore not a "privilege" that can be taxed." Jack Cole Company v. MacFarland, 337 S.W. 2d 453.

"[9] The individual, unlike the corporation, cannot be taxed for the mere privilege of existing. The corporation is an artificial entity which owes its existence and charter powers to the state; but the individuals’ rights to live and own property are natural rights for the enjoyment of which an excise cannot be imposed." Redfield v. Fisher. 292 P. 819.

"Right to earn a living is an inalienable right guaranteed by the Bill of Rights of the constitution." City of Louisville et al. v. Sebree, 214 S.W. 2d 248.

"Evidently Congress adopted the income tax as the measure of the tax to be imposed with respect to the doing of business in corporate form because it desired that the excise should be imposed, approximately at least, with regard to the amount of benefit presumably derived by such corporations from the current operations of the government. In Flint v. Stone Tracy Co. 220 U.S. 107, 165, 55 S.L. ed. 107, 419, 31 Sup. Ct. Rep. 342, Ann. Cas. 1912 B. 1312, it was held that Congress, in exercising the right to tax a legitimate subject of taxation as a franchise or privilege, was not debarred by the Constitution from measuring the taxation by the total income, although derived in part from property which, considered by itself, was not taxable." Stratton’s Independence, Ltd. V. Howbert, 231 U.S. 399, 417.

            There is no longer any doubt that personal property, including a citizen’s labor and wages, have never been legitimately considered constitutionally taxable to the federal government, nor has it ever been declared such by the Supreme Court of the United States, which has repeatedly and consistently rejected those arguments when presented in disputes.

            Again, here is what the Court said in Stratton’s Independence, Ltd. V. Howbert, supra :

"As has been repeatedly remarked, the corporation tax act of 1909 was not intended to be and is not, in any proper sense, an income tax law. This court had decided in the Pollock Case that the income tax law of 1894 amounted in effect to a direct tax upon property, and was invalid because not apportioned according to populations, as prescribed by the constitution. The act of 1909 avoided this difficulty by imposing not an income tax, but an excise tax upon the conduct of business in a corporate capacity, measuring, however, the amount of tax by the income of the corporation."

            The important and key phrase to take note of is "upon the conduct of business in a corporate capacity".  The court is clearly consistently saying in all of these cases that  (1) corporate income taxes are not really taxes upon the corporation’s income, but are an excise tax that is measured by the size of the corporation’s income derived from earnings.

            But citizens are not subject to the  payment of any excise taxes on earnings derived from an exercise of their right to work at a common law occupation.  So, the only places that federally taxable “income” can come from, are from within the true, constitutionally provided, federal jurisdictions, both territorial and subject matter as authorized under Article 1 Section 8, Clause 1, to tax indirectly in the form of imposts, duties and excises.  No earnings derived outside of these federal jurisdictions is  taxable income to the federal government, as “the 16th Amendment conferred no new power of taxation(see Stanton v. Baltic Mining Co., 240 US 103, 112 (1916)), and “It was not the purpose or effect of that amendment to bring any new subject within the taxing power(see Bowers v. Kerbaugh-Empire Co, supra), and citizens were not taxable subject of the federal government before the adoption of the 16th Amendment, and therefore THEY ARE NOT NOW.

[1] Again, Flint v. Stone Tracy Co. is controlling and Constitutional law, having been cited and followed over 600 times by virtually every court as the authoritative definition of the scope of excise taxing power.

http://www.tax-freedom.com/WhereDoesIncomeComeFrom.htm

So, the 16th amendment merely made it easier to blur the distinctions between real people and corporate persons... ever play chess? The 14th Amendment anticipated the 16th, and insured it's passage within the strategy that would end in the adoption of the federal reserve act... the very vampire who's extended lineage must be staked through the heart and soon.

JTCoyoté

"Taxation is the art of plucking the goose,
so as to obtain the largest amount of feathers
with the smallest amount of hissing."

~Jean-Baptiste Colbert,
Minister of Finance to Louis XIV
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« Reply #49 on: August 25, 2012, 09:36:32 PM »

Thanks for making my argument, JT.  I was pretty sure I already covered it pretty well, though.

I do, however, disagree with the contention that the 16th's "modification" is broad.  It is less a modification and more a clarification, and it is quite narrow.
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« Reply #50 on: August 25, 2012, 10:55:37 PM »

Thanks for making my argument, JT.  I was pretty sure I already covered it pretty well, though.

I do, however, disagree with the contention that the 16th's "modification" is broad.  It is less a modification and more a clarification, and it is quite narrow.

It is quite broad in how it can, and has been interpreted in post-amendment-14 America. It was not narrow enough to name it's target, namely, the incomes of the trust(s) and corporation(s), which if done would have saved decades of supreme court cases which have blurred original intent, in a seeming contradiction, all in the name of "plugging a loophole". In fact it has opened opportunities for a myriad of new loopholes over time that have ended with the people being taxed death while the corporations not only go largely untaxed, but are being bailed out, subsidized by government as well, all on the backs of the People, as we speak.

This possibility was in the minds of the 16th amendment detractors... it is one of the reasons why it was changed for ratification in some states which I touch on in a previous post... the 16th's ambiguity gave the corporate bankers the "foot-in" to initiate the acts which facilitated their take-over of the federal treasury in practice. Then slowly over the decades, injecting their agenda which included dissembling and redefining the words like income among others, for eventual use against the earned wages, salaries, and labor of the people.  The provocateured a century of wars, media fed fear mongering, and Constitution whittling, along with political outcries for more money from the people to insure security to "Save and Protect the Nation"...(sic)

Bastards...

Oldyoti

"The tax which will be paid for the purpose of education
is not more than the thousandth part of what will be paid
to kings, priests and nobles who will rise up among us if
we leave the people in ignorance."
~Thomas Jefferson
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« Reply #51 on: September 13, 2012, 12:49:19 PM »

The "extension" noted in Brushaber is a clarification of the consideration of form rather than substance.  You can read a book or article about the case, or you can read the case yourself... the latter provides much more clarity and far less bullshit.

The barons of industry were claiming that since their incomes were derived from property (rents, sales and use of public lands and those in the federal zone), that the taxes imposed upon that income was unconstitutional.  Whether you agree that such incomes should or should not be taxed, Congress sought to remedy that loophole with the 16th Amendment.  The purpose was to clarify, within the existing power and limitation of that power, what could be embraced by the taxing authority granted to Congress in the Constitution.

from Brushaber...

"... the whole purpose of the Amendment was to relieve all income taxes when imposed from apportionment from a consideration of the source whence the income was derived."

and further...

"... the Amendment demonstrates that no such purpose was intended [to destroy the classifications of taxes], and on the contrary shows that it was drawn with the object of maintaining the limitations of the Constitution and harmonizing their operation."

Arguments claiming the 16th provides the federal Congress the ability to tax the labor or income of the average American living and working within the states, which is the contention of this thread and of most people who have not even studied the subject (or wish to deceive others), are completely baseless.  One must discard substantive fact to one degree or another to reach this conclusion, but in the context of the Constitution, federal jurisdiction, the 16th Amendment, and the construction of federal tax laws at present, there is NOTHING that supports these arguments.

Now, was the 16th properly ratified, the opening of this can of worms of a thread?  I don't know, but if it was, it needs to be remedied properly, but NOT because people think it will relieve them of a federal tax... the VAST majority of Americans are NOT liable now anyway and never were and never will be.

Those dabbling in the Tax Honesty movement by clinging to absurd theories need to further their understanding to a degree that allows them to see past this kind of nonsense.  Many believe that repealing the 16th will somehow remove the federal Congress' ability to tax their income.  First, it wouldn't, because that wasn't even the intent of the Amendment.  Second, they're failing to understand what it is that is making them liable now (hint: their own ignorance and that of others equally ignorant of the law!).

Hello everyone. Quite new here but if you do not mind I have a question that any of you intelligent people can answer for me. I have recently been studying the 16th Amendment and believe that lot of you are correct but I must place this rebuttle that was given to me concerning this problem:

There is a long-standing misinterpretation of several Supreme Court case declarations which concludes that “income” means nothing more than ‘corporate profit’.  This conclusion arises from taking language from these rulings either out of context or incompletely, and from reading "only" where the word is actually not found.  The key phrase misconstrued in service to this error is the line,
"The word (income) must be given the same meaning in all of the income Tax Acts of Congress that was given to it in the Corporation Excise Tax Act of 1909, and what the meaning is has now become definitely settled by decisions of this court.”
from Merchants Loan & Trust Co. v. Smietanka, 255 US 509, (1921).
 
Deriving from this language the meaning desired by the "income only means corporate profit" advocates is a truly gross disregard of its context, for just prior to making the above declaration, the court has listed the "definition" to which it refers:
"Income may be defined as a gain derived from capital, from labor, or from both combined, provided it be understood to include profit gained through sale or conversion of capital assets."
Nothing in that definition is confined to corporate activity, and in fact, the context of this definition itself (which is quoted from Eisner v. Macomber, 252 U.S. 189, 207 (1921)) involves nothing but a question as to when receipts do and do not have the necessary character of 'gains'-- without regard as to the nature of the recipient.  Indeed, in 'Merchants Loan' itself, the recipients involved were a woman and her four children (through a trustee)-- not a corporation.
 
Snippets of language from other cases are similarly misconstrued in service to this conceptual error.  Prominent among these are the following cites from Flint vs. Stone Tracy Co. 220 U.S. 107 (1911):
“…when imposed in this manner it is a tax upon the doing of business, with the advantages which inhere in the peculiarities of corporate or joint stock organization of the character described. As the latter organizations share many benefits of corporate organization, it may be described generally as a tax upon the doing of business in a corporate capacity.”
and,
“The tax under consideration, as we have construed the statute, may be described as an excise upon the particular privilege of doing business in a corporate capacity, i. e., with the advantages which arise from corporate or quasi corporate organization; or, when applied to insurance companies, for doing the business of such companies. As was said in the Thomas Case, 192 U. S. supra, the requirement to pay such taxes involves the exercise of privileges, and the element of absolute and unavoidable demand is lacking. If business is not done in the manner described in the statute, no tax is payable.”
         
What is missed by those whose seize upon this language is that the issue here was not the definition of "income" generally, but only what "income" the Corporate Excise Tax Act specifically taxed-- which was that realized by corporations and a certain short list of other types of artificial entities.  Certain other types of artificial entities were excluded from this list, which was the basis for the challenge which led to the language cited above.
The court rules that Congress is within its latitude in choosing to tax only "income" enjoyed by the listed recipients, and not others-- just as Congress is able to selectively impose a tariff on imports of a certain type, or from certain countries, and not others.  Thus, the references in this language to corporate activity merely reiterate the distinctions drawn in the act itself.  "Income is only corporate profit" advocates, however, read an "only" into this language where one does not exist.  (The most substantial issue in Flint vs. Stone Tracy, by the way, was whether corporations chartered by union state governments could be subjected to the federal government's tax, even insofar as they enjoyed profits from federally-connected activities ["income"].  The court declares that they can, excepting only those engaged in activities of a strictly state governmental character-- and thus intimately related to, and partaking of, the sovereignty of the state.)
 
Another example of an oft-cited but misunderstood snippet is the following from Doyle v. Mitchell Bros. Co., 247 US 179 (1918):
"Whatever difficulty there may be about a precise and scientific definition of 'income,' it imports, as used here, something entirely distinct from principal or capital either as a subject of taxation or as a measure of the tax; conveying rather the idea of gain or increase arising from corporate activities."
As in the errors observed above, this line is misconstrued due to a disregard of its context.  Doyle v. Mitchell Bros. Co. is also a case arising under the 'Corporate Excise Act of 1909'.  Consequently, the phrase "corporate activities" at the end of this quote could be replaced with, "activities of the entities taxed under the act" and convey precisely the same meaning as that of the language used.  What the court is really and merely distinguishing in this phrase is "gain" as against "capital on hand".  The following paragraph of the opinion makes this clear:
"Understanding the term in this natural and obvious sense, it cannot be said that a conversion of capital assets invariably produces income. If sold at less than cost, it produces rather loss or outgo. Nevertheless, in many if not in most cases there results a gain that properly may be accounted as a part of the 'gross income' received 'from all sources'; and by applying to this the authorized deductions we arrive at 'net income.' In order to determine whether there has been gain or loss, and the amount of the gain if any, we must withdraw from the gross proceeds an amount sufficient to restore the capital value that existed at the commencement of the period under consideration."

***
 
The most egregious clash between plain reality and the advocacy of the "income only means corporate profit" argument can be seen by examining the "income" tax provisions reflected in Subtitle C of 26 USC.  These provisions clearly declare themselves to be taxes on, or provisions involving, the same "income" taxed under Subtitle A; and many are just as clearly imposed exclusively upon, or related exclusively to, individual workers, rather than corporations.  As an example, look at the surtax imposed under chapter 21 of Subtitle C:
 "In addition to other taxes, there is hereby imposed on the income of every individual a tax equal to the following percentages of the wages (as defined in section 3121(a)) received by him with respect to employment (as defined in section 3121(b))"
Similarly, withholding under chapter 24 in Subtitle C is nothing but a prepayment against the tax imposed under Subtitle A, which arises by virtue of, and is measured exclusively by, the receipt of the "wages" from which the withholding takes place:
Section 6401- Amounts treated as overpayments
(b) Excessive credits
(1) In general
If the amount allowable as credits under subpart C of part IV of subchapter A of chapter 1 (relating to refundable credits) exceeds the tax imposed by subtitle A (reduced by the credits allowable under subparts A, B, D, and G of such part IV), the amount of such excess shall be considered an overpayment.
 (c) Rule where no tax liability
An amount paid as tax shall not be considered not to constitute an overpayment solely by reason of the fact that there was no tax liability in respect of which such amount was paid.
(“Subpart C of part IV of subchapter A of chapter 1”, to which 6401(b)(1) refers, is:
Sec. 31 -Tax withheld on wages
(a) Wage withholding for income tax purposes
(1) In general
The amount withheld as tax under chapter 24 shall be allowed to the recipient of the income as a credit against the tax imposed by this subtitle.)
Even those provisions in Subtitle C that involve or relate to more (or other) than individual workers don't confine their application to corporations.  Because all of this contradicts the "income only means corporate profit" premise, Subtitle C is either denied any place on the radar screen of those advocating this 'theory', or is wildly distorted by being imagined as dealing with a whole different class of tax known as "employment taxes" (conveniently assisted in this misconception by the tax-code-compiler's use of that phrase when the various "income" taxes applying to, and measured by, activity as a federally-connected worker were consolidated into Subtitle C).  (This particular head-butting-with-the-facts leads to a fatal error when it comes to the tax filings made by many followers of this argument, by the way).
 
          A huge volume of subsidiary nonsense, such as that all Americans have been assigned corporate status at birth, has grown out of the original "corporate-profit-only" error.  Still, the vigor and creativity behind them, and behind the original error as well, are heartening indicators of the depth and breadth of opposition to the mis-administered tax.  I salute those who have had the courage to take this path, even while I hope that they expand the depth and breadth of the research that led them to it.

http://www.losthorizons.com/tax/Misunderstandings/corporateprofit.htm

If any of you care to respond please as I am desperate to counter this rebuttle. Thank you
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« Reply #52 on: September 13, 2012, 02:53:19 PM »

@ Violent Ken

You must understand that the agents of the government have a monopoly on force and violence.  They use their monopoly on force and violence to extort money from you because the agents of the government don't produce anything and, therefore, must fund their opperations through extortion.   No court ruling will every change this.  Laws are an irrelevancy for agents of the government.  The men with the guns make the rules.  Once you understand this reality it will all make sense.  
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Violent Ken
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« Reply #53 on: September 13, 2012, 06:37:18 PM »

@ Violent Ken

You must understand that the agents of the government have a monopoly on force and violence.  They use their monopoly on force and violence to extort money from you because the agents of the government don't produce anything and, therefore, must fund their opperations through extortion.   No court ruling will every change this.  Laws are an irrelevancy for agents of the government.  The men with the guns make the rules.  Once you understand this reality it will all make sense.  

I agree that it is probably a ploy and after checking the IRS on this subject on there website which states these "facts" :


First Amendment
    These arguments focus on using the Freedom of Religion clause of the First Amendment to reduce income tax liability. A common scheme calls for individual taxpayers to obtain minister's credentials and a church or religious order charter by mail for a fee. The individuals set up a new organization that purports to be a church, religious order, or other religious organization. They then take a "vow of poverty" and assign their assets and income to the new organization. However, filtering money through a purported church to fraudulently claim charitable contribution deductions is illegal. The tax law affords benefits to churches and other religious organizations and to those who make gifts or contributions to these organizations. The law requires, however, that such organizations actually be operated for religious purposes and not for the private benefit of individuals.
Fourth and Fifth Amendments
    These arguments claim that filing an income tax return violates the Fourth Amendment right to privacy or the Fifth Amendment right against self-incrimination. However, the courts have consistently held that disclosure of routine financial information required on a tax return does not incriminate an individual or violate the right to privacy.
Sixteenth Amendment
    These arguments claim that the constitutional amendment establishing the basis for income tax was never properly ratified. However, the courts have held that none of the points presented undermine the fact that the Sixteenth Amendment was indeed ratified in 1913.

My question is how do you fight the fact that some people have to pay income taxes every year because they fill out there w-2's and so on? I know some people who have to pay a lot of money every year and it just devastates themselves. These are all middle class people, which is why now I understand that why the middle class is being destroyed by taxes. How do you fight when the IRS uses there "supposed cases" which prove there right. Which as someone who has done case briefs, I have yet to see one of these cases that the IRS have said is on there side. I would love to see what cases they are saying.
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a ReVoLuTIONarY ideA
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« Reply #54 on: September 14, 2012, 11:57:25 PM »

My question is how do you fight the fact that some people have to pay income taxes every year because they fill out there w-2's and so on? I know some people who have to pay a lot of money every year and it just devastates themselves. These are all middle class people, which is why now I understand that why the middle class is being destroyed by taxes. How do you fight when the IRS uses there "supposed cases" which prove there right. Which as someone who has done case briefs, I have yet to see one of these cases that the IRS have said is on there side. I would love to see what cases they are saying.

Peaceful disobedience is the only way to beat the IRS.  A national movement to stop paying federal income taxes would need to be mobilized.  Everyone already hates the IRS, so I don't think it would be too hard to get this movement started.  I have toyed with the idea of making a website dedicated to a movement to stop paying taxes.  Maybe one day.
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Constitutionary
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« Reply #55 on: September 15, 2012, 12:25:50 PM »

With all the unemployed in 2012 its like the FED is screwing the IRS for us.
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Violent Ken
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« Reply #56 on: September 15, 2012, 01:32:34 PM »

Peaceful disobedience is the only way to beat the IRS.  A national movement to stop paying federal income taxes would need to be mobilized.  Everyone already hates the IRS, so I don't think it would be too hard to get this movement started.  I have toyed with the idea of making a website dedicated to a movement to stop paying taxes.  Maybe one day.

No I disagree with peaceful. It needs to be loud and needs to be told to hundreds of millions of people. It must get it's self on the news and from their, media, which will be our greatest weapon in this fight. Fox news and New York times must get there hands on the info. But I have a other idea atm but I need time to implement it.
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JT Coyoté
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« Reply #57 on: May 17, 2013, 10:18:39 AM »

No I disagree with peaceful. It needs to be loud and needs to be told to hundreds of millions of people. It must get it's self on the news and from their, media, which will be our greatest weapon in this fight. Fox news and New York times must get there hands on the info. But I have a other idea atm but I need time to implement it.

Ken,

Peaceful does not mean that it can't be LOUD... Loud is good, it gets folks attention, it arouses the sleeping... A rock concert is a peaceful activity yet quite loud. It must not become violent, however.

Oldyoti

"Where annual elections end,
there slavery begins."

~John Adams
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